TOEFL 2000 Çıkmış Sorular

Section One: Listening Comprehension

1. (A) Spend more time working on calculus
problems.
(B) Talk to an advisor about dropping the
course.
(C) Work on the assignment with a classmate.
(D) Ask the graduate assistant for help.

2. (A) Go home to get a book.
(B) Return a book to the library.
(C) Pick up a book at the library for the woman.
(D) Ask the librarian for help in finding a book.

3. (A) The woman could use his metric ruler.
(B) He’ll finish taking the measurements for the
woman.
(C) The woman’s ruler is better than his.
(D) He’s faster at making the conversions than
the woman.

4. (A) She wants the man to attend the tournament with her.
(B) The tournament begins next week.
(C) The man should check with his doctor again
(D) She hopes the man will be able to play in
the tournament.

5. (A) The advisor has already approved the man’s class schedule.
(B) The man should make an appointment to
see his advisor.
(C) The man should change his course schedule.
(D) The man should sign the document before
leaving.

6. (A) She didn’t teach class today.
(B) She noticed that the students didn’t do their
homework.
(C) She usually assigns homework.
(D) She usually talks quietly.

7. (A) It started to rain when she was at the beach.
(B) She’d like the man to go to the beach with
her.
(C) The forecast calls for more rain tomorrow.
(D) She won’t go to the beach tomorrow if it
rains.

8. (A) She disagrees with the man.
(B) She doesn’t enjoy long speeches.
(C) She hadn’t known how long the speech
would be.
(D) She doesn’t have a strong opinion about the
speaker

9. (A) He makes more money than the woman.
(B) He’s satisfied with his job.
(C) He had trouble finding a job.
(D) He doesn’t like working outdoors.

10. (A) He has already finished his report.
(B) He hasn’t chosen a topic for his report.
(C) The woman’s report is already long
enough.
(D) The woman will have time to finish her
report

11. (A) She’ll speak to Larry about the problem.
(B) Larry has apologized to his roommate.
(C) Larry should find a new roommate.
(D) Larry’s roommate may be partly
responsible for the problem.

12. (A) The man should take his vacation
somewhere else.
(B) She doesn’t know when her semester ends.
(C) She hasn’t called the travel agent yet
(D) The man may have to reschedule his trip.

13. (A) She didn’t work hard enough on it
(B) It wasn’t as good as she thought
(C) Her professor was pleased with it.
(D) It was written according to the professor’s
guidelines.

14. (A) Go to the ballet later in the year.
(B) Take ballet lessons with his sister.
(C) Get a schedule of future performances.
(D) Get a ticket from his sister.

15. (A) Her hotel is located far from the conference center
(B) She didn’t want to stay at the Gordon.
(C) The man should consider moving to a
different hotel.
(D) She isn’t sure how to get to the conference
center.

16. (A) Few readers agreed with his ideas.
(B) Very few people have read his article.
(C) He doesn’t expect the article to be
published.
(D) The woman doesn’t fully understand the
article,

17. (A) He’ll go with the woman to the next
hockey game.
(B) He missed the hockey game because he
was ill.
(C) He forgot about the hockey game.
(D) He doesn’t like to go to hockey games.

18. (A) Karen can drive to the airport on Tuesday.
(B) Karen can attend the meeting on Tuesday.
(C) Karen had to change her plans at the last
minute.
(D) Karen is returning from a trip on Tuesday.

19. (A) Call her after five.
(B) Make calls from her phone.
(C) Go to the meeting with her.
(D) Fix her phone.

20. (A) Look for more information for their
financial plan.
(B) Ask for more time to finish their financial
plan.
(C) Finish their financial plan with the
material available to them.
(D) Turn in their financial plan late.

21. (A) He doesn’t want to drive anymore.
(B) The road to Bridgeport just opened.
(C) It doesn’t take long to get to Bridgeport.
(D) He has memorized every part of the drive.

22. (A) She doesn’t have time to work in a garden.
(B) She’ll consider the man’s invitation.
(C) She doesn’t want to join a gardening club.
(D) She was never formally invited to join a
gardening club.

23. (A) She’s enjoying the music.
(B) The music will keep her awake.
(C) The music doesn’t bother her .
(D) She would prefer a different style of music.

24. (A) His house can accommodate a meeting of the entire committee.
(B) The woman should find out when the
meeting starts.
(C) The meeting should be held at the library.
(D) A smaller committee should be formed.

25. (A) She doesn’t have time to collect the data.
(B) She prefers to wait until after the election.
(C) She needs to decide on a method soon.
(D) She’ll send out the questionnaire in a
month.

26. (A) He’s angry with the woman,
(B) He feels sick.
(C) He doesn’t get along well with some
people.
(D) He prefers to study alone.

27. (A) It provides reading material for people
waiting to get in.
(B) He had to wait a long time for a seat there.
(C) He wasn’t able to find a seat there.
(D) The seats used there are uncomfortable.

28. (A) Students still have time to apply for a loan.
(B) Students must wait until next month to
submit loan applications.
(C) The woman should find out whether
her loan application was accepted.
(D) The woman should ask for an extension
on the application deadline.

29. (A) The casserole usually contains fewer
vegetables.
(B) She wishes she hadn’t ordered the
casserole
(C) The cafeteria usually uses canned
vegetables.
(D) She doesn’t usually eat in the cafeteria,

30. (A) Stay in the dormitory.
(B) Find out the cost of living in the dormitory.
(C) Ask for a reduction in her rent.
(D) Move into an apartment with a roommate.

31. (A) They’re classmates.
(B) They’re roommates.
(C) They’re cousins.
(D) They’re lab partners.

32. (A) He couldn’t decide on a topic for his paper.
(B) He thought his paper was late.
(C) He hadn’t heard from his family in a while.
(D) He thought the woman had been ill.

33. (A) To find their way back to the nest.
(B) To locate plant fibers.
(C) To identify kinds of honey.
(D) To identify relatives.

34. (A) Visit his parents.
(B) Write a paper.
(C) Observe how bees build nests
(D) Plan a family reunion.

35. (A) An alternative use of fuel oil.
(B) A way to make fuel oil less polluting.
(C) A new method for locating underground
oil.
(D) A new source of fuel oil

36. (A) She was doing research for a paper on it,
(B) She read a newspaper article about it.
(C) She was told about it by her roommate.
(D) She heard about it in class.

37. (A) To produce a gas containing carbon and
hydrogen.
(B) To remove impurities from methanol.
(C) To heat the reactors
(D) To prevent dangerous gases from forming

38. (A) It hasn’t been fully tested.
(B) It’s quite expensive.
(C) It uses up scarce minerals.
(D) The gas it produces is harmful to the
environment.

39. (A) The influence of European popular music
on non-Western music.
(B) The musical background of the director of
the Broadway version of The Lion King
(C) The types of music used in the Broadway
version of The Lion King.
(D) Differences between the music of the
film version and the Broadway version
of The Lion King.

40. (A) It was performed by the Zulu people of
South Africa.
(B) It developed outside the musical
traditions of Europe.
(C) It’s familiar to most audiences in the
United States.
(D) The students heard it performed in
New York City.

41. (A) The director is of African ancestry.
(B) The director wanted the songs in the
Broadway version to be identical to the
songs in the film.
(C) The Broadway version was first performed
in Africa.
(D) The story takes place in Africa.

42. (A) A type of music that originated in
Indonesia.
(B) The meaning of non-English words used in
a song
(C) The plot of The Lion King
(D) Popular rock and jazz music performed in

43. (A) How ancient philosophers measured the
distance between heavenly bodies.
(B) How ancient philosophers explained the
cause of an eclipse of the Moon.
(C) Why ancient philosophers thought the
Earth was a sphere.
(D) Why ancient philosophers thought the
Earth moved around the Sun.

44. (A) How the natural world was described
in Greek mythology.
(B) What they observed directly.
(C) The writings of philosophers from other
societies.
(D) Measurements made with scientific
instruments.

45. (A) They noticed an apparent change in the
position of the North Star.
(B) They observed eclipses at different times
of the year.
(C) They were the first to estimate the distance
between heavenly bodies.
(D) They wanted to prove that the Earth was
flat.

46. (A) A place for making astronomical
observations.
(B) An instrument used for observing stars.
(C) A unit of measurement.
(D) The North Star.

47. (A) One of the students asked him about it in
the previous class.
(B) He read about it the previous day.
(C) He had just read Dr. Frederick Cock’s
travel log
(D) The students were required to read about
it for that day’s class

48. (A) That Peary bad announced his success
prematurely.
(B) That the investigation of Peary’s
expedition wasn’t thorough.
(C) That Peary wasn’t an experienced explorer.
(D) That he had reached the pole before Peary
did.

49. (A) They talked to one of Peary’s companions.
(B) They interviewed Peary.
(C) They conducted a computer analysis of
photographs.
(D) They examined Peary’s navigation tools,

50. (A) Dr. Cook’s expedition.
(B) The conclusions of the Navigation
Foundation.
(C) Exploration of the Equator.
(D) Exploration of the South Pole.

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

1. Amanda Way’s career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting
in Indiana, she called for a state woman’s rights convention.
(A) begin
(B) began
(C) have begun
(D) to have begun

2. The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles___
(A) a small upright piano
(B) how a small upright piano
(C) a small upright piano is
(D) as a small upright piano

3. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with the cause of liberty.
(A) writer of eloquent
(B) whose eloquent writing
(C) an eloquent writer
(D) writing eloquent

4. Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater ___fifteen minutes before having to surface for air.
(A) as long
(B) as long as
(C) so long
(D) so long that

5. Protein digestion begins in the stomach ____ends in the small intestine.
(A) while
(B) and
(C) how
(D) because

6. When natural gas burns, its___ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up
(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules
(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up
(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules

7. _____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.
(A) All of
(B) Of every
(C) All
(D) Every

8. Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine animals, form ___with trailing stems.
(A) creeping colonies
(B) which colonies creep
(C) creeping colonies are
(D) colonies creep

9. Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women’s rights cases before the United States Supreme Court in the 1970’s,____
(A) of five winning them
(B) five winning of them
(C) of them five winning
(D) winning five of them

10. Natural selection is defined as the process ___the course of evolution by preserving those traits best adapted for an organism’s survival.
(A) to which directs
(B) of which directs it
(C) directs it
(D) that directs

11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped link the Atlantic Ocean with the Great Lakes.
(A) The extension of
(B) The extension
(C) Extending
(D) Extends

12.The chief sources of B12,a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body, include meat, milk and eggs.
(A) is not
(B) that is not
(C) not that is
(D) that not

13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and steel conducted in the nineteenth century.
(A) While the history of twentieth-century architecture
(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture
(C) That the history of twentieth-century architecture
(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its history

14.The primary source of energy for tropical cyclones is the latent heat released when ____
(A) does water vapor condense
(B) condensed water vapor
(C) water vapor condenses
(D) the condensation of water vapor

15. Manufacturing is Canada’s most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.
(A) engages
(B) and to engage
(C) that it engage
(D) engaging

16. The outer layer of the heart, called the pericardium, forms a sac in what the
A B C D
heart lies.
17. Wood from the ash tree becomes extremely flexibly when it is exposed to steam.
A B C D
18. The ability to talk is one of the skill that make humans different from the
A B C
rest of the animal world.
D
19. In plane geometry, the sum of the internal angles of any triangle
A B C
has always equal to 180 degrees.
D
20. Polar bears are bowlegged and pigeon-toed, adaptations that enable this
A B
massive animals to maintain their balance as they walk.
C D
21. Caves are formed by the chemical or action mechanical of water on soluble
A B
rock, by volcanic activity, and by earthquakes.
C D
22. Celery, an edible plant is having long stalks topped with feathery leaves,
A B C
grows best in cool weather.
D
23. The first fiction writer in the United States to achieve international fame
A B C
was Washington Irving, who wrote many stories, included ” Rip Van Winkle” and
D
“The Legend of Sleepy Hollow”.
24. Three fundamental aspects of forest conversation are the protection of
A
immature trees, the use of proper harvesting methods, and provide for an
B C
environment that supports reproduction.
D
25. For each enzyme reaction there is an optimum temperature which maximum
A B C
efficiency is achieved.
D
26. Adolescence is a transitional stage in human development from the beginning
A B
of puberty to the attainment of the emotion, social, and physical maturity of
C
adulthood.
D
27. The people native to the northwest coast of North American have long
A
be known for wood carvings of stunning beauty and extraordinary quality.
B C D
28. Colonial efforts to manufacture glass at Jamestown—- and later attempts
A B
near Philadelphia and Boston—failed despite the abundant of fuel and good raw
C
materials.
D
29. The orbit of a celestial body is usually in the shape of ellipse.
A B C D

30. Chicago is the third largest publishing center in the United States,
A B C
exceeding only by New York City and San Francisco.
D
31. North American bison differ from domestic cattle in have 14 rather than 13
A B C D
pairs of ribs.
32. Female sea turtles, before laying her eggs, swim as much as 2,000 kilometers
A B
to return to the beaches where they themselves were hatched.
C D
33. Water is the only substance that occur at ordinary temperatures in all three
A B C
states of matter: solid, liquid and gas.
D
34. Despite the growth of manufacturing and other industries, the economy
A B
of the state of Texas has remained heavily dependence on oil and gas.
C D
35. Lyndon B. Johnson was the only United States President who oath of office was
A B C
administered by a woman Judge Sarah Tilghman Hughes.
D
36. It took more than fourteen years to carve the faces of four United States
A B C
Presidents into the granite cliffs to Mount Rushmore, South Dakota.
D
37.Charles Bullfinch was the architect who design the original red brick core of
A B C
the State House in Boston.
D
38.Rarely has a technological development had as great an impact on as much
A B
aspects of social, economic, and cultural development as the growth of
C D
electronics.
39. Lowell, Massachusetts, known as the “Spindle City” since 1822 when its first
A B
textile mills were built, attracted worldwide attention as textile center.
C D
40.Strange Victory, Sara Teas dale’s smallest and most perfect collection
A B
of poems, appear in print in 1933.
C D

Section Three: Reading Comprehension

Questions 1-10
As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth
century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing
agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as
line fanners from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs,
(5) vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High Street
Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached
from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street
between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation.
Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in
(10) Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial
cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to
would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example,
were popular items.
Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the
(15) competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although
governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the
ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants’ side, as increasing
business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became
differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in
(20) addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.
One of the reasons Philadelphia’s merchants generally prospered was because the
surrounding area was undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth.
They did their business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they
cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the
(25) capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and the meetings of the
courts of justice.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Philadelphia’s agriculture importance
(B) Philadelphia’s development as a marketing
center
(C) The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia
(D) The administration of the city of
Philadelphia

2. It can be inferred from the passage that new
markets opened in Philadelphia because
(A) they provided more modem facilities than
older markets
(B) the High Street Market was forced to close
(C) existing markets were unable to serve the
growing population
(D) farmers wanted markets that were closer
to the farms.

3. The word “hinterland ” in line 3 is closest in
meaning to
(A) tradition
(B) association
(C) produce
(D) region

4. The word “it” in line 6 refers to
(A) the crowded city
(B) a radius
(C) the High Street Market
(D) the period

5. The word “persisted” in line 9 is closest in
meaning to
(A) returned
(B) started
(C) declined
(D) continued

6. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia
were held
(A) on the same day as market says
(B) as often as possible
(C) a couple of times a year
(D) whenever the government allowed it

7. It can be inferred that the author mentions
“Linens and stockings” in line 12 to show that
they were items that
(A) retail merchants were not willing to sell
(B) were not available in the stores in
Philadelphia
(C) were more popular in Germantown man
in Philadelphia
(D) could easily be transported

8. The word “eradicate” in line 16 is closest in
meaning to
(A) eliminate
(B) exploit
(C) organize
(D) operate

9. What does the author mean by stating in line 17 that “economic development was on the
merchants’ side “?
(A) Merchants had a strong impact on
economic expansion.
(B) Economic forces allowed merchants to
prosper.
(C) Merchants had to work together to
achieve economic independence
(D) Specialty shops near large markets were
more likely to be economically
successful.

10. The word “undergoing” in line 22 is closest in meaning to
(A) requesting
(B) experiencing
(C) repeating
(D) including

Questions 11-22
Aviculturists, people who raise birds for commercial sale, have not yet learned
how to simulate the natural incubation of parrot eggs in the wild. They continue
to look for better ways to increase egg production and to improve chick survival rates.
line When parrots incubate their eggs in the wild, the temperature and humidity of the
(5) nest are controlled naturally. Heat is transferred from the bird’s skin to the top portion
of the eggshell, leaving the sides and bottom of the egg at a cooler temperature. This
temperature gradient may be vital to successful hatching. Nest construction can
contribute to this temperature gradient Nests of loosely arranged sticks, rocks, or dirt
are cooler in temperature at the bottom where the egg contacts the nesting material.
(10) Such nests also act as humidity regulators by allowing rain to drain into the bottom
sections of the nest so that the eggs are not in direct contact with the water. As the
water that collects in the bottom of the nest evaporates, the water vapor rises and is
heated by the incubating bird, which adds significant humidity to the incubation
environment
(15) In artificial incubation programs, aviculturists remove eggs from the nests of parrots
and incubate them under laboratory conditions. Most commercial incubators heat the
eggs fairly evenly from top to bottom, thus ignoring the bird’s method of natural
incubation, and perhaps reducing the viability and survivability of the hatching chicks.
When incubators are not used, aviculturists sometimes suspend wooden boxes outdoors
(20) to use as nests in which to place eggs. In areas where weather can become cold after
eggs are laid, it is very important to maintain a deep foundation of nesting material to
act as insulator against the cold bottom of the box. If eggs rest against the wooden
bottom in extremely cold weather conditions, they can become chilled to a point where
the embryo can no longer survive. Similarly, these boxes should be protected from
(25) direct sunlight to avoid high temperatures that are also fatal to the growing embryo.
Nesting material should be added in sufficient amounts to avoid both extreme
temperature situations mentioned above and assure that the eggs have a soft, secure
place to rest.

11. What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Nesting material varies according to the
parrots’ environment.
(B) Humidity is an important factor in
incubating parrots’ eggs.
(C) Aviculturists have constructed the ideal
nest box for parrots.
(D) Wild parrots’ nests provide information
useful for artificial incubation.

12. The word “They” in line 2 refers to
(A) aviculturists
(B)birds
(C)eggs
(D) rates

13. According to paragraph 2, when the
temperature of the sides and bottom of the egg
are cooler than the top, then
(A) there may be a good chance for
successful incubation
(B) the embryo will not develop normally
(C) the incubating parent moves the egg to
a new position.
(D) the incubation process is slowed down

14. According to paragraph 2, sticks, rocks, or dirt are used to
(A) soften the bottom of the nest for the newly
hatched chick
(B) hold the nest together
(C) help lower the temperature at the bottom of
the nest
(D) make the nest bigger

15. According to paragraph 2, the construction of the nest allows water to
(A) provide a beneficial source of humidity
in the nest
(B) loosen the materials at the bottom of the
nest
(C) keep the nest in a clean condition
(D) touch the bottom of the eggs

16. All of the following are part of a parrot’s
incubation method EXCEPT
(A) heating the water vapor as it rises from the
bottom of the nest
(B) arranging nesting material at the bottom of
the nest
(C) transferring heat from the parent to the top
of the eggshell
(D) maintaining a constant temperature on the
eggshell

17. The word “suspend” in line 19 is closest in
meaning to
(A) build
(B) paint
(C)hang
(D) move

18. The word “fatal” in line 25 is closest in
meaning to
(A) close
(B) deadly
(C) natural
(D) hot

19. The word “secure” in line 27 is closest in
meaning to
(A) fiesh
(B)diy
(C)safe
(D)warm

20. According to paragraph 3, a deep foundation of nesting material provides
(A) a constant source of humidity
(B) a strong nest box
(C) more room for newly hatched chicks
(D) protection against cold weather

21. Which of the following is a problem with
commercial incubators?
(A) They lack the natural temperature changes
of the outdoors.
(B) They are unable to heat the eggs evenly
(C) They do not transfer heat to the egg in the
same way the parent bird does.
(D) They are expensive to operate.

22. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
(A) Aviculturists (line I)
(B) Gradient (line 8)
(C) Incubation (line 15)
(D) Embryo (line 24)

Questions 23-33
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles
to large boulders. The most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus
of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the
line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls.
(5) To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and
weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample
weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and
squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing
(10) a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between
the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between
the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into
each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general
textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the
(15) amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened,
behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined
and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called
sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered
(20) through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become
grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a
textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles,
they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately;
therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the
(25) basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle so slowly,
they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and
evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Characteristics of high quality soil
(B) Particles typically found in most soils
(C) How a high clay content affects the
texture of soil
(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil

24. The author mentions “several representative
handrals” in line 4 in order to show
(A) the range of soil samples
(B) the process by which soil is weighed
(C) the requirements for an adequate soil
sample
(D) how small soil particles are

25. The phrase “sorted out” in line 5 is closest in
meaning to
(A) mixed
(B) replaced
(C) carried
(D) separated

26. It can be inferred mat the names of the three
basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect
(A) the way the soil is extracted
(B) the results of squeezing the soil
(C) the need to check more than one
handful
(D) the difficulty of forming different
shapes

27. The word “dampened” in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) damaged
(B) stretched
(C) moistened
(D) examined

28. Which of the following can be inferred from
the passage about a soil sample with little or
no clay in it?
(A) It is not very heavy.
(B) It may not hold its shape when molded.
(C) Its shape is durable
(D) Its texture cannot be classified

29. The word “they” in line 23 refers to
(A) categories
(B) sieves
(C) larger particles
(D) clay particles

30. It can be inferred from the passage that the
sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand
test in determining soil texture because
(A) using the sieve takes less time
(B) the sieve can measure clay
(C) less training is required to use the sieve
(D) the sieve allows for a more exact
measure

31. During the procedure described in paragraph
3, when clay particles are placed into water
they
(A) stick to the sides of the water container
(B) take some time to sink to the bottom
(C) separate into different sizes
(D) dissolve quickly

32. The word “fine” in line 24 is closest in
meaning to
(A) tiny
(B) many
(C) excellent
(D) various

33. All of the following words are defined in the
passage EXCEPT
(A) texture (line 3)
(B) ribbon (line 11)
(C) sediment sieves (line 19)
(D) evaporated (line 27)

Questions 34-43
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information
by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized
line communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through
(5) choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by
the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are
flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the
utterance. When speaking before a group, a person’s tone may indicate unsureness or
fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and
(10) feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the conversant’s
tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of
concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually
discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication
that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or
(15) gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in
combination with the performer’s skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will
determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of
others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is
(20) confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few
personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person,
for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker
perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation
can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the
(25) speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the
happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities
of the depressed

34. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The function of the voice in performance
(B) The connection between voice and
personality
(C) Communication styles
(D) The production of speech

35. What does the author mean by staring that, “At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen”
(lines 9-10)?
(A) Feelings are expressed with different words
than ideas are.
(B) The tone of voice can cany information
beyond the meaning of words.
(C) A high tone of voice reflects an emotional
communication.
(D) Feelings are more difficult to express than
ideas.

36. The word “Here” in line 10 refers to
(A) interpersonal interactions
(B) the tone
(C) ideas and feelings
(D) words chosen

37. The word “derived” in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) discussed
(B) prepared
(C) registered
(D) obtained

38. Why does the author mention “artistic,
political, or pedagogic communication” in line
17?
(A) As examples of public performance
(B) As examples of basic styles of
communication
(C) To contrast them to singing
(D) To introduce the idea of self-image

39. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person’s
(A) general physical health
(B) personality
(C) ability to communicate
(D) vocal quality

40. According to the passage, an overconfident
front may hide
(A) hostility
(B) shyness
(C) friendliness
(D) strength

41. The word “drastically” in line 24 is closest in
meaning to
(A) frequently
(B) exactly
(C) severely
(D) easily

42. The word “evidenced” in line 25 is closest in
meaning to
(A) questioned
(B) repeated
(C) indicated
(D) exaggerated

43. According to the passage, what does a
constricted and harsh voice indicate?
(A) Lethargy
(B) Depression
(C) Boredom
(D) Anger

Questions 44-50
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United
States increased The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans
lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic
line life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling
(5) increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools
were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American
society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn
of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal
(10) schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most
states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools,
extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the
influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger
industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were
(15) sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and
other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should
suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were one such population.
Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the
(20) urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for
women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women,
American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies,
homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it
(25) commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home,
in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,
overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American
homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women
to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children
(30) “efficiently” in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees
in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite
out-of-date.

44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one
important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was
(A) the growing number of schools in frontier
communities
(B) an increase in the number of trained
teachers
(C) the expanding economic problems of
schools
(D) the increased urbanization of the entire
country

45. The word “means” in line 6 is closest in
meaning to
(A) advantages
(B) probability
(C) method
(D) qualifications

46. The phrase “coincided with” in line 9 is
closest in meaning to
(A) was influenced by
(B) happened at the same time as
(C) began to grow rapidly
(D) ensured the success of

47. According to the passage, one important
change in United States education by the
1920’s was that
(A) most places required children to attend
school
(B) the amount of time spent on formal
education was limited
(C) new regulations were imposed on
nontraditional education
(D) adults and children studied in the same
classes

48. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities
are mentioned in lines 11-12 to illustrate
(A) alternatives to formal education
provided by public schools
(B) the importance of educational changes
(C) activities that competed to attract new
immigrants to their programs.
(D) the increased impact of public schools on
students.

49. According to the passage, early-twentieth century
education reformers believed that
(A) different groups needed different kinds of
education
(B) special programs should be set up in
frontier communities to modernize them
(C) corporations and other organizations
damaged educational progress
(D) more women should be involved in
education and industry

50. The word “it” in line 24 refers to
(A) consumption
(B) production
(C) homemaking
(D) education